10-year note futures contract based on 100,000 par:
BPV of CTD bond: 70.4589
Conversion factor of CTD bond: 0.8935
Fixed versus floating interest rate swap:
Fixed side BPV per 100 notional: 0.1437
Floating side BPV per 100 notional: 0.0050
...
A. Calculate the number of futures contracts Mulder will sell to adjust duration, based on his
expectations interest rates will increase. Show your calculations.
Grading Guide
Answer for Question 6-A
Sell contracts to lower duration.
Desired duration reduction: 6.8 - 5 = 1.8
Desired BPV of change: 1.8 (250,000,000) (0.0001) = 45,000
BPV of futures: 70.4589 / 0.8935 = 78.8572
Contracts to sell: 45,000 / 78.8572 = 571
Candidate discussion: Show your work. There are four issues that must be quantified in this
solution. 1 point for each one you correctly address. If you make a calculation error, you may
get partial credit for having the correct process. You can display the work in other ways if
you label and reach the right conclusion. Be sure to round the number of contracts to the
closest whole number.
(Study Session 10, LOS 22.b, c, d)
B. State the type of swap pay fixed or receive fixed that Mulder would use an alternative to the
futures transaction in Part A. Calculate the notional principal of the swap. Show your
calculations.
Answer for Question 6-B
A pay fixed swap.
Swap BPV per 100 NP: 0.1437 - 0.0050 = 0.1387
NP = 45,000 / (0.1387 / 100) = 32,444,124
Candidate discussion: Show your work. 1 point each for pay fixed and calculating the swap's
BPV (it can be shown as -0.1387 if desired). The 45,000 BPV change was calculated in Part A. 1
point each for setting up the NP calculation and 1 point for the correct final amount. Dividing the
swap BPV by 100 was one way to adjust for the fact that the swap BPV was given as per 100
NP.
C. Explain how Mulder could use a single swaption based on the swap in Part B to adjust his
interest rate risk and discuss two ways it would differ from using futures contracts.
Answer for Question 6-C
Buy a pay fixed swaption:
There is an initial cost.
The risk modification is asymmetric and the account can still benefit from the higher existing
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